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Monday, October 11, 2010

A "Biblical" way to escape methodological naturalism, Part 2

This post is 5th in a series.  To save time and effort, rather than reviewing what I've been doing in this series, I will simply point you to the previous posts:




In the last post I covered the story of Numbers 16.  Now I would like to review the story of Jesus and "doubting" Thomas found in the Gospel of John 20:24-31. 

For my purposes in this post the commonalities in these two texts are more important.  Here is a short list:
  • God's servant -- by extension God himself -- is questioned or doubted.
  • One of God's servants proclaims in advance the occurrence of a feat that will put beyond doubt the credentials of the one quetioned/doubted (Moses announces that earth will swallow his opponents/"Scripture" predicts Jesus will rise from the dead).
  • The feat occurs as predicted.
  • Manifest evidence of the feat is witnessed and the witnesses express their conviction that the feat has occurred.
  • The text of the story expresses, directly or indirectly, that the proper
  • reaction of a witness was/should have been conviction that the feat occurred and that God's servant is vindicated.
For the purpose of this post I am foregoing any discussion of whether seeing people swallowed alive by a sudden fault or seeing alive and touching someone you know was crucified, dead, and buried 3 days ago, both of which events were predicted to occur more or less as experienced by people claiming to speak for God -- whether such events produce enough evidence to believe 1.) the events took place and 2.) the alleged spokesperson does indeed speak for God.   Instead, I'm going to assume that they do.

Both of these stories conform to a standard argument found in numerous Biblical narratives that goes something like this:
1.  If  someone claiming to speak for God predicts that God will bring about the occurrence of an event that is
   a.  highly improbable and unknown to the experience of most/all human beings
   b.  beyond the capability of the speaker or any other individual or group of humans to bring about
 and
2.  the predicted event takes place as described by the speaker and at the time predicted by the speaker,
then
3.  God was speaking through the speaker and he caused the event to take place.

IOW, God demonstrates his existence and intelligence by predicting his performance of deeds out of our ordinary experience and then performing them as predicted.

To save time and space I am simply going to assert that many instances of this type of argumentation can be found in the Bible.   You will find it abundantly in narratives about the wilderness wanderings, the stories of conflicts involving prophets in the books of Kings, narrative portions of the Book of Isaiah, the entirety of the Book of Ezekiel, the Gospel of John, the resurrection stories, etc.  This fact partly invalidates claims that the authors of the Bible and their audiences were epistemologically naive.  The authors would not have resorted to this argument unless they felt the need.  They encountered scepticism in their target audiences and fought against it by marshalling evidence in favor of their claims.  They found this type of empirical argument useful.   How many Thomases were there in the communities amongst which the early Christians lived?  More than one or two, I'm sure.  Likewise, I suspect the stories of the wilderness wanderings take on a hostile, confrontational tone toward the people of Israel because many of the actual early hearers of these stories did not respond in awed credulity.  The "orthodox" Yahwist priests/prophets met a rough reception and paid their audiences back in kind.  Or alternatively, God and/or the human author anticipated the scepticism the story would encounter and provided an empirical argument to forestall rejection and stimulate belief.  The Thomas story puts this tactic on display big-time. 

But we must not skip over a huge qualification.  The Thomas story and all the other examples we can find in the Bible are about empirical evidence shown to characters in the story.   The characters are convinced by the evidence, but the hearing/reading audience doesn't get to experience it; we get to participate in the story by the use of our imaginations.   As a piece of scientific method, this stinks.  I can stand there with Thomas touching a thousand different apparitions in my imagination and learn absolutely nothing about their existence.

The author of the Gospel of John is apparently aware of this; he tries to finesse his way around it by providing us with Jesus's famous follow-up line:  "Because you have seen me you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed."  (John 20:29 NIV)  This statement tells us that John's audience should not expect to be given the kind of empirical evidence provided to Thomas.  Second, it implicitly casts aspersions on Thomas's scepticism.  Thomas demanded and got empirical evidence for Jesus's resurrection.  By doing so he missed out on a blessing available to the members of John's audience who believe without it.   We are not told what blessing Thomas missed out on.  We are told quite plainly throughout John's gospel what the blessing of having faith in Jesus is:  eternal life.  Putting these things together, we are presented with a clear choice:  Believe in Jesus without solid empirical evidence for the resurrection or miss out on eternal life.

We should pause to point out that in Thomas's case one may question whether his scepticism is warranted.  As one of Jesus's travelling companions Thomas witnessed the miracle at the wedding at Cana, the feeding of the 5000, and the raising of Lazarus.  With all that accumulated evidence prior to the resurrection, the story told by the women and the other apostles should not have been so unbelievable.  But the readers of John's Gospel are not in Thomas's shoes.  We didn't get to see any of those miracles.  Are we nonetheless open to criticism for being unreasonably sceptical if we doubt the stories of the resurrection?   
 
Yes, according to John, because we have the books of the Bible!  So we have to add to this empirical argument the premiss that we know the books in which the evidence is presented are telling the truth.   Once again to save space and time I am going to simply assert that the Biblical authors stake their argument on this premiss or something similar.  Note the many times in the Book of Psalms that the psalmist mentions how he learned about Yahweh's deeds from the stories passed down from his ancestors.   There are so many examples in the NT of confidence in the truth of the Hebrew Bible that it hardly needs citation.   That the writings of the apostles were also to be granted this high degree of trust is one of the points made in 2 Peter 2:16-20, a classic text on this topic.

Here I think we can make a better case for epistemological naivety on the part of the Biblical authors.  The sceptic asks, "Why should I trust these writings to tell me the truth any better than any other ancient writings?"  They apparently did not think to provide sufficient evidence to convince sceptics raising these questions hundreds of years after they had died.    Mind you, providing the kind of case that can survive the depredations of time would be difficult in our day.  As difficult as it would have been back then, they could have secured some confirming testimony from enemies of their faith that was not embedded in their own documents and could be verified not to have been doctored by later Christian scribes, etc., etc.

But this is not their approach at all.  Instead, their strategy is to blame the victim.  The real reason sceptics don't have a high degree of confidence in the truthfulness of Biblical authors is that 1.)  they hate God, and 2.) they have already rejected abundant evidence for the reality of God and the truthfulness of the Biblical writings that testify of his existence, character, purposess, and deeds.  There is already sufficient empirical evidence to satisfy someone who was really open to persuasion and for that reason God has determined not to provide any more. (See Luke 16:31)

This strategy is still widely employed by defenders of orthodoxy.   It is also deeply flawed.  If somebody is dead-set against a belief the surest way to reveal his prejudice and defeat him is to present him with a massive amount of evidence.  Instead, this strategy attempts to blame the sceptic for the lack of greater evidence.  This will only make the sceptic more certain that he is right.

Why use this strategy then?  Maybe the Biblical authors weren't so epistemologically naive.  Maybe they knew they couldn't provide stronger confirming evidence because they didn't have any.   Hence they fall back on arguments from authority, character assassination against sceptical critics, and carrot/stick arguments such as that in John 20:29.

To sum things up, then, we see that whatever theoretical promise the "Biblical" method to escape methodological naturalism may have, it is fatally flawed in execution because it hasn't provided any real evidence, only questionable testimonies that somebody else long ago and far away had this evidence.  As a Christian, I find this conclusion disconcerting and frustrating.  IMHO, the only proper responses are 1.)  to rebuild Christian theology from the ground up from within the framework of methodological naturalism or 2.)  give up on Christianity altogether.

Monday, September 27, 2010

A "Biblical" way to escape methodological naturalism, Part 1

For those who have come upon this post from elsewhere, this is 4th in a series.  Look here, here, and here for the previous posts.  I would now like to discuss how the Bible deals with the relationship between data detectable, observable, and measurable by humans and human knowledge of God.  I have never encountered a survey of the type I am planning to undertake anywhere else.  This is most likely just another illustration of my miseducation and/or laziness.  In any case somebody somewhere with real scholarly credentials has probably written on this already.  If you know about any of these resources, please let me know!  

Let's start with enough of a review of orthodox Christian epistemologies to get us oriented to the Bible.  Epistemology is a tortured subject for Christians; there are significant areas of agreement among them, but the controversialists on the various sides usually argue that the distinctives of the opponent destroy the ability to justify one's knowledge of anything.  I am going to stick with things about which there is general agreement and leave areas of controversy aside for the most part.  OK, so from an orthodox Christian viewpoint, how do we know things?  We can start with the classic distinction between reason and revelation.

Reason here is much more comprehensive than just logical thinking; it is the set of tools and methods humans have available to learn about the world and God apart from God's specific "revelations."  It includes the use of our senses, the sciences, mathematics, intuitions. 

Revelation is typically broken up into two categories:  natural or general revelation and special revelation.  Natural revelation is what God reveals about himself in the existence, structure, character, and history of the physical universe around us and ourselves.  This has to be distinguished from our apprehension of God by experiencing ourselves and the world.   Natural revelation is an objective fact, regardless of whether any human beings have learned anything about God from it.

Special revelation is specific information not included in the categories under natural revelation that God communicates to specific human beings in one of several ways:  dreams, visions, auditory messages, miracles, via the media of prophetic messengers and inspired writers, and finally in the entire life, words and deeds, of Jesus of Nazareth.  Typically, theologians insist that God's revelation, even when miracles are involved, has a verbal component.  God "speaks" to us.    There are disagreements about how and in what forms God is still revealing himself, but there is at least general agreement among orthodox Christians of various traditions that the Bible is a revelation from God.  If we want to know what God has to say to us, we need to read or hear the Bible.

In my description of reason I managed to avoid the entire history of disputes over epistemology.   I did so intentionally.  Orthodox Christians believe that mathematics, logic,  and the empirical sciences are legitimate means to know the world, so long as they are employed under the overarching authority of God's revelation.   They believe the Bible teaches this.  I do not intend to question any of this now.  We will operate on this basis in our survey.

Natural revelation will play a relatively minor role in our survey, so I am foregoing further discussion of it.  Regarding special revelation, I would like to point out that there are two components here:  the medium and the message.  Did you happen to notice that all the means used in special revelation are empirical?  Even the most direct -- a message planted directly in the human mind by God -- has an empirical component.  I am now admittedly bringing in modern brain science, but why not?  Are we to suppose that when God revealed his laws to "Moses" or told Paul what to write that it made absolutely no difference in the pattern of their brain activity?   In other words, every act of revelation has a detectable, observable, measurable effect.

This leads us to consideration of the message.  Does the content of special revelation have a detectable, observable, measurable component?  Of course!  This is a commonplace admitted by all sides in regard to Christianity.  The Bible makes all kinds of at least theoretically testable claims about the past, present human experience, and the future.  The question I am interested in is more precisely this:  In what ways do the authors of Biblical books use their assertions of testable claims to convince readers to believe them?

For this purpose I want to look at the stories of Korah's rebellion (Numbers 16:1-50) and Jesus's post-resurrection appearance to Thomas (John 20:24-31).  I picked these stories because they include specific statements about their evidentiary value; otherwise I think they are pretty typical.   (For the story in Numbers, we can safely ignore disputes over whether it is a conflation of separate stories about a dispute over the position of the non-Aaronide levitical priests with Korah leading the pro-levites side and a dispute specifically about Moses's leadership led by Dathan and Abiram.)   In the former story a group of dissatisfied Israelites led by the Levite Korah and the Reubenites Dathan and Abiram confront Moses and Aaron with the accusation that they have usurped authority over Israel.  Moses tells the rebels to assemble themselves the next day.  The key text in Numbers reads (Num. 16: 28-34 NIV):
 Then Moses said, "This is how you will know that the LORD has sent me to do all these things and that it was not my idea: If these men die a natural death and experience only what usually happens to men, then the LORD has not sent me. But if the LORD brings about something totally new, and the earth opens its mouth and swallows them, with everything that belongs to them, and they go down alive into the grave, then you will know that these men have treated the LORD with contempt."  As soon as he finished saying all this, the ground under them split apart  and the earth opened its mouth and swallowed them, with their households and all Korah's men and all their possessions.  They went down alive into the grave, with everything they owned; the earth closed over them, and they perished and were gone from the community.  At their cries, all the Israelites around them fled, shouting, "The earth is going to swallow us too!"
 According to v. 28, the people will know God sent Moses when they see the earth split open and swallow the households of Korah, Dathan and Abiram.  We note that Moses pronounces the coming event and its interpretation in advance.  We also note that the event itself takes place immediately after Moses's speech and takes away all those and only those against whom Moses said it would be directed.  The text provides us with the eyewitnesses' terrified reaction to the predicted demise of the rebels and  their households and their later (vv. 41ff) assessment that Moses and Aaron are somehow to blame for the deaths of Korah, Dathan, Abiram, their followers and their families.

In sum we see that the eyewitnesses of this series of events were left in no doubt that Korah, et. al.  died.  We do NOT see them expressing their belief that Moses is a true prophet of God.   Instead, they blame the deaths on Moses and Aaron.  Their comment in v. 41 is not elaborated upon.  Did they think Moses and Aaron could summon God to perform murders?  Did they think that Moses and Aaron had inherent powers over nature?   The point of the text seems to be that the people were wickedly obtuse.

The basic argument of the text is abundantly clear to the reader.  The Israelites may not get it, but we do.  If someone announces a miraculous and highly improbable event is about to take place in order to verify his claim to have a word from God, the speaker has given no evidence that he possesses any independent power to bring this event to pass, and this precise event takes place immediately afterward, it is reasonable to conclude that the speaker is telling the truth about himself and God.  Were we there, we would conclude Moses is a prophet and reject the arguments and leadership of any survivors of Korah's ilk.

I will continue with the story of Thomas and Jesus in my next post.

Saturday, July 31, 2010

Is human finitude a reason to abandon methodological naturalism?

Before I get into the meat of the post, just a reminder to someone who happens not to have read the previous posts that I am continuing a series about methodological naturalism.  As mentioned in a previous post, I will not be using that term in favor of the terms "detectable, observable, and measurable" to describe the requirement in standard scientific method that theories be supported/confirmed by "detectable, observable, and measurable" data.  

Human finitude complicates the issue of detectability. If somehow we had made everything ourselves and had the design plans in hand, we could account for everything, even things we could not detect with our senses and instruments.  In fact, the world we know existed before us and will continue after we perish, we had no hand in devising the rules by which it operates and can control almost nothing that happens in it, and we find ourselves continually frustrated, surprised, and puzzled by the things we encounter in it.  In short, we are finite, derivative, and accidental.  Given our situation, many entities, events and processes are 
1.  in fact undetectable given our current limitations, or
2.  in principle undetectable given our derivativity, accidence, and/or finitude.  
 
Consider the following scenario:  The entire expanse and history of the cosmos we inhabit is encapsulated in the oscillations of a sub-atomic particle in a drop of coffee falling from the cup of an inhabitant of the outerverse sitting at her kitchen table getting ready for work.  The immensity of this outerverse is such that our cosmos's transition from big bang to thermal stasis happens while the drop is still falling.  Entities, events, and processes in this outerverse caused directly the initial conditions which led to the "big bang" starting off our cosmos.  Oscillations of nearby particles in the atom, molecular interactions in the drop of coffee, the gravitational forces pulling the particle and everything around it in the drop of coffee toward the surface of the table -- all contribute indirectly to the forces and entities we experience, and given enough time, some entity, event or process in the outerverse could lead to the sudden destruction of most or all of our cosmos. It must be kept in mind that the outerverse's scale of time and distance is so great relative to our own that even the approach and passing of another sub-atomic particle in the outerverse would take longer than the entire history of our cosmos. 

The immensity of this outerverse makes it undetectable.   There is simply not time enough in the entire history of our cosmos for us to accumulate enough evidence to be able to grasp the makeup of the outerverse or even detect its existence.  Furthermore, the laws of physics familiar to us do not hold in the outerverse's scale of time and distance, just as Newton's laws were found not to hold at the sub-atomic level. Finally, the inhabitants of the outerverse are just as unable to detect our existence or send us any kind of communication or message that we would be able to receive.

I bring up this scenario so that I can remove the issue of religion from the discussion of detectability and scientific method.  Believers in non-physical, non-natural, "spiritual" entities will object that this scenario leaves their perspective on the nature of the cosmos out of the loop.  To show what a nice guy I am, let's bring God into the picture big-time.  Since I am most familiar with and still favorable to Judeo-Christian theism, we will add the following:
1.  The outerverse is a direct, immediate creation of God.
2.  Although our cosmos developed entirely as a direct effect of natural causes, once human beings appeared God began to intervene via miracles (theists can add miraculous elements arbitrarily to this picture).
3.  Even though some kind of evolutionary process led to the appearance of life in this cosmos, including human beings, theists are free to add initial conditions that would preclude objectionable aspects of the evolution theorized to have occurred in our world -- parasitism, predation, sexual competition, etc.
4.  Humankind fell.  Theists are free to assign the same cognitive effects of this fall as they believe occurred in the "fall of Adam."
5.  God provided specific direct revelation about our cosmos via whatever mechanism theists want to propose.   He told humankind that He created the cosmos and everything in it.  But he specified no mechanisms, spoke nothing about the existence of the outerverse and left no instructions about what humankind could or should do to try to find out how He did it.

So here we have a thoroughly "supernatural" reality.  We  have one case, the outerverse, which meets only the minimum requirements of the correct defnition of supernatural:  entities, events, and processes in the outerverse are undetectable, unobservable, and unmeasurable.  In this case, immense time and space are sufficient to render the outerverse supernatural according to Arthur Strahler's definition.  On the other hand, we have a personal, "spiritual" God.  He fits the minimum requirements for being "supernatural" but in addition has the characteristics of intelligence and purpose.

In this kind of universe human science would always be incomplete in principle, not only in regard to an explanation of the human condition but even in regard to the origin, nature and history of the natural world.  Those outerverse entities, events, and processes would keep breaking the regularities proposed by scientists working purely with data discoverable in our cosmos.  Not that all scientists would accept this view of reality.  Some would strive for complete explanation of the history of the cosmos anyway, but their theories would inevitably  fall victim to discovery of anomalous data.   Religious thinkers from other traditions would almost certainly seize on the opportunity provided by the inability of scientists to explain major features of the cosmos by providing their own explanations.  These explanations would almost certainly be incorrect and if subject to falsification by scientific methods would also fall victim eventually to anomalous data.  The position of those holding to God's revelation,  principled agnosticism, might gain strength over time.

It is possible that the scientific community would eventually arrive at a consensus that it had "hit a wall" regarding an explanation of the history of the cosmos.  Further theoretical progress would not be possible unless the community found a way to gather new types of evidence that can help it penetrate the mysteries it keeps bumping up against.  In the past scientists have been able to overcome this type of barrer by developing new instruments and methods.  That could happen in this case too, but under all but the most optimistic and unlikely outcomes it would only put off the day of reckoning.   For example, if humans found a way to break out of our cosmos and survive in the outerverse the previously unaccountable mysteries could come under examination.

But the far more likely outcome is what we are interested in here.  Faced with apparently insurmountable roadblocks to theoretical progress using standard scientific methods and procedures, what alternatives, if any, would the community consider?  We have already ruled out revelation.  Deductive reasoning has already been thoroughly discredited. 

What non-empirical methods are left?   Transcendantal argument?  "Unless we assume the existence of an outerverse we have no way to account for the phenomena we encounter in our cosmos."   This is really just a sloppy, vague, and untestable variant of standard scientific method.  When the argument is provided with a mathematical form and proposes specific tests using detectable, observable, measurable data that can confirm/disconfirm it, it would get promoted to a genuine theory and no longer be an alternative to normal scientific procedure.  Otherwise, it is a cheap substitute and scientists would be likely to say, "Interesting but unhelpful." 

Would there be a divide between "believing" and "unbelieving" scientists over this matter?   I can't come up with a reason why there would be.  What would either party gain by opening up science to non-empirical methods?  Do they offer a new kind of evidence that can stand up to critical scrutiny, that will inspire greater confidence in the theory by friend and foe alike?  No.  This would be enough for the vast majority of the community, "believer" and "unbeliever" alike, to reject them.

In the end, the scientific community would be more likely to insist that their theories stay tied to detectable, obvervable, measurable data and live with incomplete theories than they would be to change their requirements so that they could have complete explanation.   In the next post I would like to begin an examination of approaches to "methodological naturalism" in the Hebrew Bible and the New Testament.

Thursday, July 15, 2010

Further Reflections on Methodological Naturalism as Detectability

In a previous post I suggested that sometimes theists and "naturalists" may, in the heat of their disputes, confuse the issue of "methodological naturalism."  Anti-theistic philosophers and scientists share with theists a tendency to fixate on  their differences over teleology, "supernatural" intelligence or design in nature and may more or less often drag this issue into disputes over "methodological naturalism."  In fact there is no necessary connection  between "methodological naturalism" and any position on the existence of design in nature, for example.  "Methodological naturalism" is short-hand for insisting that scientific explanation confine itself to entities, processes, and events that can be detected by human beings, whether by direct sense experience or the use of instruments.

I think it is possible that some of the folks with whom I've disputed over this matter made this confusion.     For that reason I plan to abandon the term "methodological naturalism" for the duration of this series of posts and talk about "detectability" and scientific method.

In her article on methodological naturalism Barbara Forrest quotes Arthur Strahler to the effect that introducing a single "supernatural" -- i.e, undetectable -- cause anywhere in a chain of causes making up a scientific explanation invalidates the entire explanation.  Is this single invocation of an undetectable cause really so devastating?  I think Strahler overstates the case, but qualified properly it still raises a legitimate issue.

Let's say, for example, I am sitting down to eat a stack of blueberry pancakes for breakfast and I suddenly have an overwhelming sense of deja vu.  In my mind I am carried back to a memory of breakfast at a summer camp.  I was at summer camp last year, but the camp in my memory is not the same as the one I actually attended.  In fact, the location and the people sitting next to me don't resemble those at any summer camp I can remember attending.  Joe psychologist explains to me that the smell and look of the pancakes triggered associations in my mind.  The unrecognized location and visitors come to me by way of reincarnation.  In a previous life I attended that very summer camp and sat with those very people for a breakfast of blueberry pancakes.

Strictly speaking, the event of reincarnation is unobservable.   Sure, I can detect one of its supposed effects, the apparent memory of people and a place I otherwise don't recall, but the event itself is beyond reach.   Nevertheless, for argument's sake let's say Joe psychologist is right.  Furthermore, let's say  that my experiences all conform to his diagnosis.  I have repeated, striking experiences of deja vu, vivid dreams or nightmares, and always they include things that I have no memory of otherwise.  Furthermore, let's say that all unrecognized details of these experiences can be traced to things experienced by the person I supposedly once was.

I can invoke several other undetectable causes to account for all the same phenomena, such as the presence of a demon who stole all these experiences from the other person and is planting them in my mind, or the existence of a post-mortem psychological memory "field" that radiates from the deceased person to another individual who can receive the memories on that "frequency."    To the extent that these and other possible undetectable causes can account for all my experiences, past, present, and future, it doesn't really matter which one is correct.  In fact, any and none of them could be correct, which means that Joe psychologist's explanation really amounts to "I don't know."  This is one way Strahler may be thinking that invoking an undetectable cause invalidates scientific explanation.  It amounts to an admission of ignorance. 

I've already hinted at a qualification to Strahler's argument.  Even undetectable causes can generate specific predictions about future observable events.  Assuming the predictions following from various undetectable causes differ, one can falsify one or more of them if predictions fail.  In this case the invocation of a specific undetectable cause is at least an implicit rejection of its undetectable competitors.     

On the other hand, Strahler is on to something genuinely pernicious about invoking undetectable causes.  Now that I have become convinced that Joe Psychologist is right, I am no longer driven to figure out where these apparent memories came from.  I ascribe them all to my past life.  With my critical faculties lulled to sleep I miss the clues, subtle or not,  leading to a simple explanation that does not invoke an undetectable cause.   To this someone will say, "Hey, the problem with reincarnation is not that it is undetectable, but that it is wrong!"

It certainly is wrong.  Strahler may be drawing from historical experience here.  Humans have often resorted to undetectable causes to explain the world, and in most cases their explanations were just plain wrong.  But the invocation of the undetectable cause, wrapped in religious language and delivered with divine authority, became an obligation.  To question it became a sin. 

The appeal to an undetectable cause often discourages scientific research at precisely the point we would otherwise expect it to intensify.   It is routine for scientists to encounter anomalies in their data, focus research on the anomalous situation, uncover new data, and use it to craft theories that resolve the anomaly.   Reincarnation may explain my apparent memories, but further research may uncover more mundane causes and obviate the need to invoke reincarnation.  This has happened often enough in the past, as Forrest points out in her articles.  And it is this historical experience that grounds statements like those of Lewontin.  The "a priori" refusal to allow undetectable causes in scientific explanation is really a lesson learned.  Religions make many claims about undetectable causes for what appear to be anomalous events in the world but on further investigation it turns out that detectable causes fully account for them.
 
Does this mean that a scientist who happens to be a believer should pursue research that could lead to the falsification of his beliefs?   Damn right!  I will work this out in detail when I get back to my series on Eve as a scientist in the garden of Eden.

Saturday, July 10, 2010

The Case of Rupert Sheldrake Illustrates how Some Evangelicals May Misunderstand Methodological Naturalism

Lately it seems I haven't been able to stick with multi-post projects on this blog.  This post may appear to be part of that pattern, but I'm hoping to link it in with my planned thought experiment on Eve in paradise.  The stimulus for this post was a series of exchanges I had with Steve Hays et. al. on Triablogue here and here regarding methodological naturalism in scientific investigation.

When I asked him for examples of scientific investigation that avoided the pitfall of methodological naturalism, he directed me to Rupert Sheldrake and Stephen Braude.  I took some time to learn about Rupert Sheldrake.

Reflection on Sheldrake's views and the controversy they have generated clarified a few things about the accusations some theists make against methodological naturalism in science.  It led me to do a little more digging and I found two  helpful articles by Barbara Forrest here and here along with some criticism. I would like to review this issue a bit again using some of the insights from the Forrest articles and criticisms before I tackle Sheldrake.

In the course of the discussion on Triablogue, one of the critics of methodological naturalism suggested that the real issue is not so much "natural" vs. "supernatural" as "designed" vs. "non-designed."   Some proponents of methodological naturalism might seem to agree.  For example, consider these words of Paul Kurtz:  "First, naturalism is committed to a methodological principle within the context of scientific inquiry; i.e., all hypotheses and events are to be explained and tested by reference to natural causes and events. To introduce a supernatural or transcendental cause within science is to depart from naturalistic explanations. On this ground, to invoke an intelligent designer or creator is inadmissible. . . ."  Or how about this from Steven Schafersman: “except for humans, philosophical naturalists understand nature to be fundamentally mindless and purposeless. . . ."  On this interpretation methodological naturalism betrays its precommitment to metaphysical naturalism by excluding in advance intelligent purpose, plan, or design from its theories about the operation of the world, except in the case of human endeavors -- and those of intelligent "aliens," assuming any are discovered.  "Supernatural" is the naturalist's code word for "deriving from a transcendant intelligence, especially God."  Another way to put it is that on this interpretation disputes over methodological naturalism largely resolve to the dispute over teleology.

Even after all this I think it is a fundamental mistake to confuse methodological naturalism with a resistance to teleology.  There is no necessary connection between them.  In fact, "naturalism" or "materialism" does not refer to an entity's lack of consciousness or purposive activity.  Instead, methodological naturalism is primarily a commitment to incorporating only what can be experienced by human beings into scientific explanation.  Forrest quotes Arthur Strahler to this effect:  "[S]upernatural forces, if they can be said to exist, cannot be observed, measured, or recorded [emphasis mine] by the procedures of science--that's simply what the word 'supernatural' means.  There can be no limit to the kinds and shapes of supernatural forces and forms the human mind is capable of conjuring up 'from nowhere.' Scientists therefore have no alternative but to ignore the claims of the existence of supernatural forces and causes."  Only if we can detect and measure a phenomenon can it play a role in scientific explanation. 

I believe this is the proper place to bring into play Richard Lewontin's notorious statement in his review of Carl Sagan's The Demon-Haunted World that scientists embrace materialism "a priori" and cannot let a Divine foot in the door.   He sums up as follows: "To appeal to an omnipotent deity is to allow that at any moment the regularities of nature may be ruptured, that miracles may happen." It sounds like Lewontin is complaining about God's apparently arbitrary intentionality.  But that is not the issue.  He hints at the real issue in the title to his review:  "Billions and Billions of Demons."  Demons, angels, fairies, aliens with superior technology, God himself all have the capacity, according to at least some of their devoted followers, to become totally undetectable at will.  They inhabit the world of human experience and an alternate world totally beyond human reach and can step in and out of that other world any time they want.   This convenient ability allows those who believe in them to dismiss scepticism because the inhabitant of that other world simply decided to hide herself from the sceptical inquirer.  This was a common tactic in the witch trials of the 16 and 17th centuries.  With that kind of argument you can spawn an arbitrary number of theories of arbitrary complexity populated by an arbitrary number of undetectable entities -- "billions" of demons.   Now replace the personal entity with a mystical experience such as reincarnation.   If a believer in reincarnation defends the belief with the same type of argument -- the evidence is simply hidden from the sceptical inquirer -- he runs afoul of methodological naturalism without making any teleological claims.   

This brings me to Rupert Sheldrake.  Sheldrake's theory of morphic resonance raises a lot of questions in my mind.  Perhaps reading his books would answer some of them.  For now, though, I just want to point out the following:
1.  The two critics of Sheldrake I heard from (Lewis Wolpert and P. Z. Myers) both stated clearly that they object because Sheldrake can present no good evidence for his theory.  Neither of them complained about Sheldrake's claims of divine intervention or supernatural powers, because he makes none.
2.  Sheldrake himself insists that he is working on accumulating evidence to back up his theories.  The experiments posted on his website are meant to gather data that will support the idea that there is some kind of collective "memory" or "field" shared by all members of a given species and that information gathered by one member is shared with all via transmission through this "field."  Steve Hays pointed to Sheldrake's experiments as an example of how one could do science without relying on methodological naturalism.  In fact, Sheldrake's experiments do no such thing.  His theory may be wacko mystical nonsense, as Wolpert claims, but his intent is to accumulate enough data to build an explanatory framework that conforms to the requirements of methodological naturalism.  He appears to believe, for instance, that we will eventually be able to detect and measure "morphic fields" directly.

Detectability is the real issue in methodological naturalism.  But detectability is a tricky issue on its own.  I reserve further discussion for another post.

Monday, February 15, 2010

Theologians have a lot to answser for

Rant warning!

I was reading Consilience by Edward O. Wilson. Happened to switch over to Augustine. It struck me, as it does from time to time, the sudden change. Wilson is reasonable, balanced, fair, clear. He argues and explains without making threats. He treats the reader with respect. Augustine is quick to condemn. Even when not specifically condemning someone or other, the very subjects he addresses and the way he addresses them drip with implied condemnations of someone or other. And on what basis? Because this passage or that passage from the Bible tells him so. Respect for the reader? No. The reader is to be bludgeoned into acknowledging his truth. I say "his" intentionally. The man was swimming in unacknowledged, unrecognized ignorance. He appeals to God to give him knowledge, confesses his dependence on God to provide him with knowledge, and then proceeds to make pronouncements on dozens of matters about which he knows next to nothing and press upon the reader the necessity of adopting his opinions or perishing.

I am not picking on Augustine; this is a pattern generated, not by failings in his personality or character, but by the nature of his beliefs. Judeo-Christian "orthodoxies" do this to people. They are a baleful influence. In short, as a professing Christian I think Christopher Hitchens is on to something: religion ruins everything. I can't speak about other religious traditions, since I don't know them well. But I can speak about Christianity from long personal experience. Orthodox Christian theology is poison in the well of the human heart. There is good in orthodoxy, but it is ruined by foolishness which invariably accompanies it. I am not saying religion is the ultimate cause of human evil. The ultimate cause is our own nature. Evolution has endowed the human heart with very destructive, malicious passions. Nobody escapes this. The problem with orthodox Christianity is that it masks its own malice in holiness. The consequence? The God clung to by the orthodox becomes a monster.

For a start, consider the prophets. Ancient Israelite society was no paradise on earth. The prophets testify to many "sins," some against God himself, some against fellow Israelites. But according to the prophets, God has a very limited set of remedies, almost always consisting of an invading army followed by devastation of the land and atrocities against the people. This God of the prophets is supposed to be superior in wisdom, mercy, and power to the evil Israelite aristocracy, but in practice he does nothing except destroy, destroy, destroy. Why? The prophets were realists; if Assyria, Babylon, or Egypt wants to overrun Palestine, what are the kingdoms of Israel and Judah going to do about it? But in order to get their message accepted they have to turn necessity into a virtue. Voila! God WANTS the foreign invader to succeed in order to punish the evildoers among his people. Never mind that the people most likely to suffer are the people already victimized by internal injustices. They have to suffer twice? So what? They deserve it; they're idolaters!

And then, of course, God avenges his people eventually. How? By really giving it to the invaders! But not the invaders that caused the problem in the first place. Their descendants get it, the ones unfortunate enough to live when the foreign empire's vitality is ebbing away and competitors start ravaging the homeland. But we can be more specific about this. The vast majority of those who suffer from this vengeance are peasants, people who most likely profited little or nothing from the devastations wrought by the ancestors of their overlords. And how does this help those Israelites who originally suffered injustice?

Are you a theologian? Fix this problem with orthodoxy. Tear the God-damned prophetic theology apart and put it back together so that it stops slandering God.

Friday, February 12, 2010

What if Eve had been a trained scientist?

This essay is a brief thought experiment meant to explore the implications of an alternate version of the story of Adam and Eve found in Genesis 2 & 3. In the alternate version Eve practices the forms of reasoning employed in modern sciences to decide what to do about the serpent's "temptation." Using these techniques the "scientific" Eve either falsifies the serpent's claims without any human being eating the forbidden fruit or, depending on how Adam and God respond to her, falsifies many of the theological/anthropological/cultural constructs underlying the Biblical version of the story. If Eve had been a trained scientist, there would have been no "fall."

I attempted a simpler form of this experiment many years ago. At that time my primary purpose was to dispatch to my own satisfaction a variant of Calvnistic/Reformed orthodoxy known as Van Tillian presuppositionalism. One of this position's claims, based on its own approach to Genesis 2 and 3, is that modern scientific ways of knowing the world are inherently prejudiced against true knowledge and love of God. Primarily, this is due to the fact that the modern scientific way of knowing does not accept the already self-evident knowledge scientists have of God from the inerrant Word of God in the Bible, the creation around them, and their own being and constitution. All of these things speak to them very clearly, and in being exposed to them scientists encounter God himself. But scientists fail to respond properly to this knowledge. Instead, they suppress and deny it; they doubt things they know deep down to be true. Or, more exactly, they doubt the One they know deep down to be Truth.

In other words, consistent methodogical doubt is sinful and disastrously counterproductive when confronted with the God of the Bible. I don't accept this at all. But I was not happy with the idea that presuppositionalism would go one way and I another and the two would have nothing to say to one another. I would press reasons and arguments starting from my set of givens and they would press reasons and arguments starting from their set of givens (primarily the Bible), and we would talk at one another but make very little progress. Ah, I thought, if I can show that the use of scientific methods by Eve would rule out the "fall," the entire presuppositionalist position is overthrown. That was my initial intent. Whether this thought experiment achieves that intent knowing readers will have to judge for themselves.

In any event, that is no longer my primary intent. I have broader goals now. For one thing, writing out this experiment is more fun for me and anyone who happens to read the posts. For another, I think the contrast between the two versions of the story will make some features of the Biblical version clearer and easier to evaluate. These are good things, no matter what your beliefs about Genesis 2 and 3.

Next post in the series coming soon!

Saturday, January 16, 2010

The right response to Pat Robertson on Haiti

Had to break from the usual themes to address the earthquake in Haiti. This catastrophe hits close to home because my wife spent time there and we knew some good friends who were missionaries in Haiti. The scope of this disaster takes one's breath away. Christians across the board have already begun mobilizing to lend assistance to relief efforts -- as we should be. If you are a Christian, odds are great that your denomination/local church has already taken some steps to help, perhaps through direct relationships with co-workers in Haiti or through general relief efforts.

Everything I am about to say must be understood in this context. Pat Robertson recently put his foot in it again with his statement about how the catastrophe is part of a curse on Haiti due to some supposed pact with the devil that resulted in Haiti's liberation from France 200 years ago. This is ridiculous.

So, what to do about it? Ignore his worthless speculations about what Haitians are supposed to learn from this disaster and concentrate on the clear implications of the event for us, such as "do good to all men, especially those of the household of faith," "Pure religion and undefiled is this: to look after widows and orphans in their distress." In short, if you want to silence the critics of Christianity, outdo Robertson and his followers in loving the churches and people of Haiti. Robertson is thinking in Ezekielian terms: God brings a huge catastrophe, and shows everyone he is God. Jesus had a different idea for us: "by this all men will know you are my disciples, if you love one another." Let's get to it.

Monday, November 30, 2009

Excursus: If healing is so central to the ministry of the kingdom, why didn't Jesus teach the disciples any medical science?

This is not a new question. The Internet Monk
recently asked similar questions. Many smarter and more knowledgeable people than I have proposed answers to this question, I'm sure. I just don't have time or resources to track down their answers. So I'm bound to be repeating things somebody else already said or making stupid objections to other views that the proponents have already answered. Oh well.

So, what do we make of this? According to the gospels Jesus healed lots of sick people; he gave his disciples authority to heal sick people. The gospel writers sometimes make a big deal of his willingness to heal the sick, including the disobedient (Mark 1:40-45) and ungrateful (story of the 10 lepers). So, what has happened to all the healings? Sure, Christians still testify to miraculous healings, but not on anywhere near the scale testified by the gospel of Mark, for example. You can find a pretty involved set of -- mostly dodges -- to that question here.

Look, either the physical healing ministry portrayed in the gospels is an integral part of the kingdom of God or it isn't. If it is integral to the kingdom of God and the gospels are telling us the complete truth about Jesus's ministry, we should be seeing the same mass healings today. This is essentially the argument of the Pentecostals. According to them, we aren't seeing mass healings today because of the massive unbelief of both church and culture. Medical science may actually be more of a hindrance than a help because it weans us away from reliance on God. If we weren't so dependent on medications, surgery, and other therapies, we'd see more direct, miraculous healings and have better health over the long run. As far as I'm concerned this view has been falsified beyond hope of rescue.

Let's say the physical healing ministry is not an integral part of the kingdom of God. Let's say instead that it was chiefly intended to establish the truth of the gospel. Once that is established (to God's satisfaction, I guess), miraculous healings recede in frequency, lest they become a distraction to the essence of the matter: repentance, faith, the forgiveness of sins, and the gift of eternal life. The close connection between physical healing and forgiveness of sins found in the early chapter of Mark is not meant as a paradigm for the immediate effects of entry into the kingdom. It serves as a sign to the new believer. Since his sins are forgiven, he has reason to hope for the elimination of all the consequences of sin, including any diseases, in the end. There are problems with this view. First, it brushes the compassion of Jesus under the rug. When he encountered a leper, he had compassion and "cleansed" him. Not only were the leper's sins forgiven, but his sickness was gone and with it all the social stigma he had borne. Today, a convert with bi-polar disorder has his sins forgiven and ... what? Does he get off the lithium? Usually, no. Where is the compassion of Jesus? About the only recourse left is modern medicine. Where did it come from, if not from the providence of God? I have a lot of sympathy with this approach, but it only sharpens the point of the question I raised in the title to this post.

If Jesus knew that a physical healing ministry of the type he exercised was not going to be a permanent part of the church's worldwide work, why did he not explicitly direct the disciples to begin developing its anticipated replacement? After all, modern medicine did not become a significant factor in the lives of most of the human race until the last 150 years or so. Almost nothing in the gospels or the rest of the New Testament suggests any effort on the part of Jesus or his early followers to develop any of the tools, techniques or underlying knowledge used by modern medicine to protect people from sickness or ease their suffering.

What does this mean?

1. Jesus and his first followers were profoundly ignorant of the natural causes and treatment of disease. They based healing on the direct, personal intervention of God and the faith of healer and healed, because they did not know of any other way to treat diseases more effectively.

OR

2. Jesus did not want his disciples to learn about modern medicine. Why not? Maybe because it would become a distraction. But the miraculous healings were a distraction, according to John. And there are plenty of other central features of the kingdom that could become distractions. Take theology, for example. By the 400s that had become a huge distraction. Maybe, as the Pentecostals argue, it would tempt people to trust in man rather than God. But the persecution of the church tempted thousands to defect or compromise. Why didn't Jesus just eliminate the possibility of being persecuted? Maybe the early disciples were so woefully ignorant that even with direct teaching by Jesus they would not be able to maintain a responsible and effective research program for the long run. I suppose that would have been likely, if the initial results produced little benefit. But consider the good that could have been done with even the simplest advice and direction. Supposedly, these folks were committed to the divine authority of the Bible and took seriously its statements about things they would never see or hear even once in their entire lives. Could not Jesus have taught them about, say "unseen things" like bacteria, and how to avoid getting infected? Is this really more difficult for ignorant people to accept than the idea that God will raise the bodies of bad dead people to life and throw them into a lake of burning sulfur forever? I don't know what other possible explanations for Jesus's silence on this matter are left,

EXCEPT

3. Jesus did not teach his disciples about modern medicine because he wanted unbelieving people to suffer sickness. The blessings of the kingdom ultimately are for believers. But it takes no faith to benefit from modern medicine. It is inherently subversive of priorities of the kingdom. Therefore, not only did Jesus not want his first followers to learn about modern medicine, he doesn't want modern Christians using it either. It is evil to resort to physicians, because the believing person does not need them and the non-believing person is wrongly protected from the consequences of his sins that would otherwise drive him to the Great Physician. I think this last explanation is a piece of pernicious bullshit. It also happens to be the kind of argument used by some theologians and preachers in past generations to stop the development of modern medicine. Don't believe me? Check out Chapter 13, section 10 of Andrew Dickson White's A History of the Warfare of Science with Theology in Christendom. Yes people complain that White tends to exaggerate the extent of the hostility, but the examples he gives are still instructive. Or, ask Turretinfan. He's the best at patristics I've seen on the web. If he can't find Christian fathers who questioned or outright condemned the pursuit of medical science, nobody can. He might even be happy to find them for you, if for no other reason than to show in what way(s) their questions/condemnations were correct. Mind you, most of the folks in his camp believe medical science is a good thing, and I would expect Turretinfan is no different. Its up to them to figure out how they can do this without adopting option #1 above, which I think is the only option besides Pentecostalism that does justice to the descriptions of Jesus as "compassionate."

Sunday, September 20, 2009

Introduction to the Kingdom of God: Mark 1-3:19

Some preliminaries about the text. Given that Mark's gospel is the shortest and packs a number of different themes about the kingdom into a very short space in the beginning chapters, I figured a sequential study of this section would make a worthwhile introduction to the kingdom of God. To my mind the kingdom of God is the best summary idea for understanding what one is getting into when he/she responds to the call to follow Jesus.

The ministry of John the Baptist. Mark starts the story of the good news with John's ministry. The combined quotation of Malachi 3:1 and Isaiah 40:3 and the quotation of John's words in v. 7 highlight an interpretation of John's ministry as an intentional preparation for the coming of Jesus, the Son of God. When John baptized people in the Jordan River, he was getting them ready for the appearance of the mightier one, who would follow up that baptism with the baptism of the Holy Spirit. Regardless of how closely this approximates the intentions of the historical John the Baptist, it clearly links John's ministry with the coming ministry of Jesus: John prepares, Jesus fulfills. This is important because it encourages one to understand John's message and actions in light of Jesus's ministry, and not so much the other way around. The historical John has often been understood to be an eschatological prophet, perhaps gathering the people by baptism in preparation for a mighty act of God in judgment upon his enemies. Interpreting Jesus's ministry in light of John would then make Jesus the agent of that eschatological judgment and would suggest that we should place the prophecy of Mark 13 centrally in the story. The destruction of the temple and attendant disasters is key to Jesus's whole ministry. If we allow the influence to bleed the other way, however, John's message of impending eschatological judgment gets transformed. The judgment no longer falls immediately, visibly, or directly from heaven. In fact, John's message of eschatological judgment is muted in Mark's gospel. The focus instead is on his preparation of the people by baptizing the repentant. He readies the people to accept the preaching of the kingdom of God.

The story of Jesus's baptism not only links John and Jesus, it also links Jesus with the people of Israel. He is baptized with the other penitents, he receives the baptism of the Holy Spirit John promised the coming one would perform on the penitents, God calls him "my beloved son," a recollection of the sonship of Israel (Hosea 11:1), and then Jesus is driven into the desert to be tested by the devil for 40 days. This connects him to the wilderness wanderings of Israel by the timespan, the theme of testing, and the presence of wild beasts and ministering angels. The identification of Jesus with the people of Israel suggests that Jesus's own ministry not only effects the establishment of the kingdom of God, but that it is also a model for the continuing ministry of his followers to advance and maintain that kingdom.

Mark then skips ahead to the arrest of John and the subsequent beginning of Jesus's ministry. This further ties the two together. When John's public work is brought to a halt, Jesus begins his. Mark immediately introduces us to the main message: "The time has come. The kingdom of God is near. Repent and believe the good news."

It is extremely important to notice that Jesus begins his work by preaching a message. This is a significant departure from the surface language of Malachi 3 and 4. Where is the judgment? Where is the burning fire? Where is the consumption of the enemies? Not here. Instead, he calls the hearers to repent and believe the good news that the kingdom of God is near.

This is underscored by the story of the calling of the first disciples. He summons 4 fishermen to follow him with the announcement, "I will make you fishers of men." Now, we have no way of knowing if this is genuinely historical, nor do we have a lot of context. Did Jesus challenge all the fishermen he encountered along the shore, and we are only hearing about some who responded positively? Or, did he single out only these men? We don't know, but what we do know is that Mark is portraying Jesus as a fisher of men who catches 4 and tells them he intends to make them do the same. In short, Mark is portraying Jesus as the initiator of a recruitment movement for the kingdom of God.

The next story introduces us to the new power brought into the lives of the people by Jesus's public ministry. First, Jesus is able to teach in a synagogue. This fits in with what we just pointed out above. Jesus teaches because it is by this means that the kingdom of God is drawing near. Mark emphasizes that Jesus's teaching is marked by "authority" lacking in the teaching of the Jewish scribes. Then we have the encounter with the demon-possessed man, in which the demon recognizes and submits to Jesus's authority. So, we see that the kingdom of God drawing near includes the entrance of a superior spiritual power recognized by both the human and unseen worlds. And this is power is for the good: it impresses the people the people hearing it while sitting around the word of God, and it drives out the demons.

Next, we see another sign of the power of the kingdom for the good. After Peter's mother-in-law is healed, the people of Capernaum swamp Peter's house and keep Jesus busy healing the sick and casting out demons into the night. (Mark's mention of "after sundown" is significant, I'm sure, but the implication/allusion escapes me.) That Jesus remains with the people healing them indicates a significant goal of the kingdom: elimination of the evils afflicting the people. So it is not just a matter of the people getting ready for the kingdom by repenting, it is also a matter of God taking away the evils that plague the people.

Jesus rises early the next morning to pray in a deserted place. On the one hand, this is an indication already in the story that he needs to get away from the crowds to have time alone. Peter and some others find him anyway after a search and announce, "Everyone is looking for you." This is another significant mark of the coming of the kingdom, and of Jesus's role in it. The kingdom is attractive. This fits with the vision of the prophets which pictures the future as a time when the peoples would stream to Jerusalem. Mark may be including this story to indicate that the time of "streaming" in has begun with Jesus's appearing. This also distinguishes Jesus as the bringer of the kingdom. I firmly believe that Mark's portrayal of Jesus has two sides: Jesus is the unique Son of God/Jesus is the first among many. Here, we have an emphasis on the former, but with implications for the latter as well.

He responds to Peter with another key characteristic of the kingdom: "Let us go also to the surrounding villages so I can preach there; for I came for this reason." This is the reverse of the prophetic picture of the peoples "streaming" in. Now, the kingdom goes out to the peoples by means of a preacher. And so he went to the towns of Galilee preaching in the synagogues and casting out demons.

According to Mark sometime during this initial preaching tour Jesus encounters a leper. The exact terms of this encounter are somewhat in doubt due to some key textual variants. Specifically, did the leper kneel (v. 40) and did Jesus react to the leper's appeal with compassion or anger (v. 41)? The latter variant is more interesting because the "angry" reading appears to create difficulties. Why would Jesus be angry with the leper for requesting a healing and what does it say about his character? Some believe that the "angry" reading is an attempt to reconcile v. 41 with the strong rebuke Jesus issues to the leper in vv. 43-44. And there is some logic to this viewpoint. The language in vv. 43-44 is pretty strong and most translations tone it down. According to the "compassionate" reading Jesus felt compassion for the man when he healed him but then "speaking harshly to him immediately he cast him out." It is not immediately obvious why Jesus would have such a sudden change of attitude. The poor attestation for the "angry" reading suggests that it is a secondary attempt to make Jesus consistent. It could very well be that some scribe in the western tradition tried to smooth the tension between compassionate healing and violent expulsion. On the other hand, assuming Mark's text is the basis for Matthew and Luke's versions of the story, it is noteworthy that neither of them give any indication of Jesus's feelings during the healing. You could argue that this would make more sense if their Markan original had the "angry" reading, since neither of them would likely want to promote the idea that Jesus got angry with the people he was about to heal. In both versions, the harsh post-healing treatment disappears as well. Unless one wants to argue that neither Matthew nor Luke were interested in communicating Jesus's inner attitude in this text, their behavior would suggest that they found the "angry" reading in their sources. But, in fact, there are other cases in which Matthew and Luke's versions of stories shared in common with Mark lack reports of Jesus's emotions where Mark includes them, and some of these cases include descriptions of Jesus's compassion or love for someone. Conclusion? I reach the very tentative conclusion that the "compassionate" reading is original. I have no definite opinion about the "kneeling" variant.

So, the leper believes Jesus can heal him but appears to challenge or doubt Jesus's willingness to do so. The leper is not alone in this doubt. It was a commonplace of Jewish thinking at this time that sickness was a just punishment for sin. Consider the disciples' question to Jesus about the blind man in John 9: "Who sinned, this man or his parents?" It doesn't take much imagination to appreciate the social consequences of having a debilitating disease in a small village community with this kind of outlook on life. The OT regulations (Lev. 13:45-46) about how a person with a skin disease was supposed to act until healed would only make things worse. It is quite reasonable to suppose that some of the lament psalms, eg. Psalm 38, were composed based on this type of experience. The afflicted person of faith would be asserting his faith in God's goodness towards him in the teeth of almost universal condemnation. In fact, this combination of theological assumptions, ritual regulations, and personal reactions would suggest that sufferers would in many cases be more or less permanently alienated from their communities. Even after healing and restoration to their communities, they would possibly remain "marked" and retain suspicions of or resentments against their neighbors. If I am right about this, then Jesus's response to the leper is HUGE.

First, he touches the leper. The touching would appear to make Jesus "unclean, " if Lev. 15:7 should be applied to this case. The resulting "uncleanness" could be remedied relatively easily -- washing clothes and body -- and quickly -- till evening. The story passes over this issue in silence. I think this is a pregnant silence. Everybody knew that the OT regulations were designed to ensure that nobody touched the leper. Jesus ignores the regulations to help the man.

Second, he heals the leper. By characterizing the healing as cleansing, the story reverses the dynamic behind the OT purity regulations. Here, clean gets transferred. This event explodes the entire OT conception of clean/unclean. The holiness of God is no longer circumscribed within carefully defined limits and the people left standing outside, surrounded by a world of pollutants from which they must protect themselves in order for God to tolerate their presence. Nope, with the kingdom the holiness of God comes bounding out of the sanctuary and puts pollution to rout.

Third, he makes it very clear that he wants the leper clean. This affirmation resolves the leper's doubts and testifies to his acceptance with God. Now you can find plenty of commentary on the OT purity regulations that will explain how they taught the Jews about the holiness of God, his majestic offense at human sin, the consequences of original sin, the depths of human depravity, etc, etc, etc, ad nauseum. The fact of the matter is that all these purity regulations regarding "leprosy" were put in place because the ignorant legislators realized that the skin diseases were contagious but didn't have a clue what to do about it, except to keep the sick away. And what better way to do that than to put the entire condition in the category of an offense against God? The sufferings added by the purity regulations were the fault of the sick person anyway.

This brief exchange reveals the silliness of all these excuses. Jesus heals the leper, and kicks the whole clean/unclean configuration into the garbage. Don't even get me started on this. Too many people's lives were completely thrown away because so many IDIOTS CLUNG TO STUPID THEOLOGY WHEN THEY COULD HAVE MAYBE TRIED FINDING OUT HOW TO GET SICK PEOPLE WELL, HUH? Mind you, I'm quite aware that this story doesn't proclaim the germ theory of disease. But the point still stands: Stop trying to come up with reasons why God wants people sick. Get them well.

Wednesday, August 26, 2009

Outline of living for followers of Jesus

This post outlines an approach to teaching someone how to follow Jesus. Notice that this is absolutely NOT an introduction to Christian faith. Frankly, a lot of introductions to Christianity end up discouraging someone from following Jesus, or at least makes that a secondary or optional goal.

I'm not going to bother supporting that claim with evidence now. I'll leave it to you to compare the content of the following posts with other stuff out there and draw your own conclusions.

For this purpose, I am not gong to engage in criticism of the gospel texts. Instead, by and large I am going to accept the gospel writers' traditions about Jesus's ministry as a platform for developing a way of life. I will be attempting to deal with a notable inconsistency between the life settings of the earliest Christian communities as presented by the letters of Paul and Acts and the life setting of the disciples in the gospels. The early Christian communities consisted of large numbers of people who were tied to a specific community/locale and a much smaller group of itinerants who traveled between the communities, usually in a leadership capacity. The gospels focus attention on an itinerant Jesus and the disciples who travel with him. Much of the teaching given to the disciples fits this type of life setting. What does this mean for the life of non-itinerant Christians? I hope to include answers to this question.

OK, here's a basic approach:

Examine the kingdom of God and the role of Jesus's ministry in it drawing near.

Learning about the kingdom from Mark 1:

1. The kingdom fulfills God's promise of salvation for his people found in prophets. 1:1-3
2. As predicted by the prophets, John the Baptist prepared for the coming of the Lord Jesus by calling on the people to repent of their sins and be baptized to receive forgiveness. 1:1-6
3. Jesus will baptize the people with the Holy Spirit. 1:7-8
4. When John baptizes Jesus, God announces to Jesus that he is pleased with him as his son. 1:9-11
5. Unlike the wilderness generation, Jesus passes the test in the wilderness. 1:12-13
6. Jesus announces the good news that the kingdom is near and calls on the people to repent and believe the good news about the kingdom. 1:14-15
7. Jesus calls some men to follow him and become "fishers of men." 1:16-20
8. Jesus teaches the people about the kingdom with "authority." 1:21-22
9. Jesus casts out a demon and news about him spreads. 1:23-28
10. Jesus heals many people. 1:29-34.
11. Jesus begins an itinerant teaching/healing ministry, saying "that is why I have come." 1:35-38
12. Jesus heals a man with leprosy out of compassion for him and does so by touching him. The news of the man's healing draws large crowds to Jesus and he has to stay out of the towns. 1:40-45.


This quick survey highlights several features of Mark's presentation of Jesus:
1. He draws people's attention by the "authority" of his words and actions. This has been interpreted by many as "the kingdom is present because the king is present."
2. Despite his attempts to keep a low profile, people from all over are hearing about his deeds and are coming to receive the benefit of healing. In other words, the kingdom of God is attractive to people in trouble. It is something that draws people in to find help for their problems.
3. Jesus started out his public ministry calling out specific individuals to become "fishers of men."
4. Jesus is a healer who dedicates time, energy, and emotion to bringing relief to the distressed.


2. What Jesus's followers did:

- traveled with him
- assisted him in carrying out teaching ministry
- listened to his teaching and asked him questions when they didn't get it
- went out to preach about the kingdom and heal the sick
- faced many uncomfortable moments being confronted with their own incomprehension and even resistance to Jesus's plans for them.

3. Living in the kingdom

- Repent and believe the good news.
- Leave the old life behind and start a new one.
- Proclaim the good news that the kingdom of God is near.
- Heal the sick.
- Serve your fellow disciples.

4. Kingdom relationships
- with those outside
- with your mentors
- with your peers
- with your "disciples"

This is a work in progress. Expect this outline to expand.

Monday, December 29, 2008

Romans 9-11: Picking through the shards

Recently I returned to the Book of Romans and became leisurely reacquainted with Paul's sustained argument for "his" gospel. By the end of Romans 8 he has reached a climax: Believers in Jesus secure in the love of God from every evil assault. He then breaks to confess to the Romans his great distress that his wonderful message has so far failed to win the vast majority of the Jews. He embarks on a theodicy that concludes with the hopeful resolution that God has shut Jews and Gentiles both in disobedience in order to show mercy to them all, whereupon he praises God for his unsearchable wisdom.

The opening verses of Romans 9 invite comparison with Moses's intercession with Yahweh for the Israelites at Mt. Sinai after the golden calf incident in Ex. 32-34. There are enough quotations and allusions to sections of these chapters to at least entertain the idea that Paul intends a comparison. Ultimately, though, the comparison is not sustained. For one thing, Exodus 32-34 is an extended narrative, and, for that matter, one written long after the "events" it relates. The author and intended readers already know that Israel did not perish in the wilderness, that the promise of the land would be "fulfilled." The narrative answers the question, "How could a nation of sinners like us inherit the land?"

Paul, on the other hand, does not have the luxury of hindsight. He may be willing to risk his apostleship to stand in the gap for his fellow Jews, but he cannot show the Romans how his intercession has already won them God's favor. Even more important is Paul's recourse to remnant theology. He will make the argument that God has been saving only a remnant of Israel. The current situation is no different and something better for Israel must be preceded by a process of spiritual renewal for gentiles. Paul also does not address the Romans as mediator for the Jews but as ambassador of God. He takes God's side and argues for his prerogatives. Whatever intercession Paul may do and whatever pleas he may make on Israel's behalf will take place offstage. He doesn't let the readers in on his conversation with God. Perhaps this is out of humility; Jesus is the greater Moses who sacrificed his life for the people already. Paul will not portray himself as another Moses and so appear to usurp Jesus's mediatorship.

I think, though, that Paul's view of God is really different from that of the author(s) of Exodus 32-34, or at least the sections in 32:7-14,30-33; 33:12-28;34:1-9. For whatever reason, he doesn't seem to think that the "plan" of God he finds in Scripture is up for negotiation. He will explain and defend what he thinks is found there, but even if it troubles and sorrows him, he won't challenge it. Instead, he finds a way to make it work out for the greater glory of God. Or, at least that seems to be his intent.

I intend to argue that he fails to achieve his intent. First, in his eagerness to find support for his view of God, he engages in some creative interpretation of the Scripture. Second, his arguments have been so troubling to later readers that we now have vastly different interpretations of these chapters. You can always say, "That's the reader's problem, not Paul's." But it is his problem too, because at many points he is ambiguous and his language can be pressed in different directions, none of which ends up with a completely satisfying and coherent interpretation of the entire section, much less the entire book. In other words, no matter how you read 9-11 you end up with problems.

Most importantly, Paul's hopeful ending to these chapters shatters against the rock of history. There only so many ways to get around this. The commonest "orthodox" solution is to adopt a "pessimistic" reading; Paul's vision for the future salvation of Israel is fully compatible with the last 2000 years of Jewish-Christian relations. By the way, I include the "God will save the bulk of the Jewish nation in the messianic age," however that age is construed, as a species of pessimistic interpretation, because it requires us to believe that Paul would be satisfied that "until the fullness of the gentiles comes in" includes at least 2000 years of delay characterized by Jewish "unbelief," widespread persecution of Jews by the Christian churches, and the holocaust.

There are other less "orthodox" alternatives:
  • God is more self-limiting than Paul allows.
  • Paul's exposition of God's "plan" for salvation of Jew and Gentile is provisional and open to revision based on human response.
  • universalism.
  • Paul is just wrong about the meaning and application of the gospel for Jews, or for people generally.
  • the entire book is so much rubbish.

I, for one, don't think Romans 9-11 is just so much rubbish. I do think it has been shattered and we are left with the remains to make of it what we can. And by God's grace, I will make that attempt in subsequent posts.

Sunday, September 30, 2007

2 Samuel 3 -- The Man of Shame

Today's post is an exercise in self-evaluation via an examination of someone else's shamelessness. The question we are asking ourselves is, "How far am I willing to follow someone when the course he is taking begins ro bother my conscience?" Fortunately, we can examine this shameless behavior from a safe distance of about 3000-2500 years. It gives us some space to think calmly and test our resolve before it will cost us something dear to stick our heads up and shout, "Wait ... a ... minute!"

The shameless individual is (I think) the narrator of 2 Samuel 3. We are catching him in the middle of his account of the war between the "house of Saul" and the "house of David." To summarize, David had just become king of Judah after the death of Saul and Jonathan at the hand of the Philistines. Abner, the commander of Saul's armies, had taken Saul's son, Ish-Bosheth (or Ishbaal) and made him king of Israel. War broke out between the two camps over who would be king of all "Israel." Most of chapter 2 is taken up with an account of the first battle in the war, and the focus of the account of this battle is the death of Asahel, youngest brother of Joab, commander of the armies of Judah, at the hands of Abner. This story prepares us for some of the events of chapter 3.

The narrator opens chapter 3 with a summary of the war's progress and a list of the sons born to David while he reigned in Hebron. Basically, though the war lasted "a long time," it was going well for David. Not only did he prosper militarily, his family was enlarged by the addition of several wives and sons. The rest of the chapter deals with a set of pivotal episodes in the war over the kingship. The main figures in this set of episodes are Ish-Bosheth, Abner, David, and Joab. Remember that pairing: Ish-Bosheth/Abner and David/Joab.

I took the title of this post from the name "Ish-Bosheth," which translates roughly as "man of the shameful thing." As has been pointed out many times, it is likely that the man's real name was "Ish-Baal." Over the course of time, names ending in "Baal" came to have a bad connotation to Jews. It reminded them of the Canaanite god, Baal, the worship of whom by their forefathers had so incensed the prophets and had become in some Israelite theology a primary cause of the political disasters suffered by the Israelite kingdoms in the 1st millenium BCE. So, his name was changed by the narrator or a later editor to reflect "right thinking" about the significance of "Baal" in a person's name. But of course, whether concocted by the narrator or a later editor, the moniker fits Ish-Baal. His abject weakness compared to Abner and David is shameful. If you think his situation is shameful, just wait.

The next part of the story deals with a conflict between Abner and Ish-Baal. The narrator informs us that in the course of the war Abner "strengthened his own position" in the house of Saul. We are not told how he accomplished this, but we are told that Ish-Baal accuses him of sleeping with one of Saul's concubines. If true, Abner would have been asserting a claim to the throne of Israel. (The political significance of taking possession of the (former) king's wives/concubines is stressed several times in the story of David.) Abner speaks as if he were incensed at this accusation, defends his loyalty to the "house of Saul," and swears that, since he has been rewarded with a false accusation, he will turn the kingdom of Israel over to David.

Interesting points in the story so far:
1. The narrator does not tell us plainly whether Abner was guilty.
2. Abner describes himself as a kingmaker. According to the narrator, that was his role for Ish-Baal. Now Abner describes himself in the same terms. He claims quite boldly that he will fulfill the promise God made to David that he would become king over all Israel.
3. Ish-Baal does nothing to stop his commander, because "he was afraid of him."

The next set of episodes involves Abner's negotiations with various parties to effect the transfer of the kingdom to David. He communicates with David, the elders of Israel, and the Benjamites. As part of the settlement, David insists on having his (former) wife and Saul's daughter, Michal, restored to him. The narrator informs us that David communicated this demand to Ish-Baal directly, who complied -- another indication of his shameful weakness. The negotations give the narrator the chance to show how Abner and the elders of Israel recognized that God's blessing had and would rest on David and on Israel with David as king. We are told that David and Abner made a covenant which apparently involved Abner joining David's staff and taking a high position in the military command and that David and Abner celebrated the covenant with a communal meal and then departed in peace.

What are we to think of Abner? First, he is a realist. His position was endangered by the growing weakness of the Saulide kingdom. Second, he is ambitious. By entering negotiations with David, he was giving himself a chance to hold on to power. He was negotiating from a position of weakness, but tried to hide that weakness behind rhetoric and the appealing offer of a peaceful transfer of power. Third, he really was powerful. His efforts to bring the Israelite tribes under David's rule succeeded.

Of course, being a Saulide, Abner himself cannot prosper. This has been the narrator's determined view of everyone associated with Saul. Abner is killed by Joab in retaliation for Asahel and perhaps to prevent Abner from muscling himself in front of Joab. We have already seen his exalted view of his own role in David's ascent to kingship. In addition, the narrator uses David's words of lament to tie Abner to Nabal. David asks, "Should Abner have died as the lawless die?" (NIV) "Lawless" is actually "nabal," the Hebrew word for "fool." It suits the narrator's purpose for this verse to have a double meaning: "Should Abner have died like Nabal?" The comparison intended by the narrator is not the manner of death (contra McKenzie in King David: A Biography) but the cause of death: a consequence of one's own actions, particularly actions opposing the ascent of David.

Now that the kingdom has been transferred to David, the narrator shifts his attention to the death of Abner. It is clearly all Joab's fault. He and the army return from a raid to find out that David has made a treaty with Abner and sent him away in peace. Joab objects that Abner only used the occasion to spy. He then summons Abner back to Jerusalem and, unknown to David, murders him in a gateway. When David finds out, he immediately claims total innocence of the deed and pronounces a curse on Joab's descendants. He forces Joab to join the rest of the people in public mourning. He fasts all day long during the funeral proceedings. The narrator assures us that the king's actions convinced the people that David had nothing to do with Abner's death. The chapter ends with a speech of David to his men, in which he praises Abner, confesses his inability to deal with Joab and Abishai, and appeals to God to bring judgment on them.

Many others have noted how unbelievable David's protestations are. I will only point out the following:
1. To ancient Israelites, calling curses down on the descendants of a criminal may have passed for justice. Too bad for them. In this case, it falls pitifully short. Forget that punishing a person's family for a crime they did not commit is wrong. David is the king, the supreme judge and commanding officer of Israel. What about dealing with the criminal!?!?
2. David's explanation for his failure to deal with Joab (and Abishai) seriously undermines the narrator's entire program. If David is speaking the truth, then he is a God-forsaken weakling. He can't (or won't) deal with Joab and Abishai. Let God deal with them, but don't get me involved. And he says this to his own men! What!! You mean they believe him, but won't back him up? Wow! Who holds the reins of power in Judah? And Abner thought he was a kingmaker! David is far more a "man of shame" than Ish-Baal.
3. But the weakness defense is unbelievable enough to leave most scholars, besides some conservative evangelicals and the like, convinced that we are dealing with propaganda. We should read the story as an attempted coverup. But it is transparently so. This leaves us with a question. Was the narrator aware of how obvious he makes the coverup? Is this parody or irony?

Taking the story as a parody of a coverup offers some comforts. First, it means that the narrator has a conscience. Second, it means that we don't have to make excuses for David. He really was as bad as he often seems to be. Third, it may fit the way David is handled in later chapters of 2 Samuel.

Unfortunately, I don't think we should read the story that way. I have two reasons for saying this. First, there is no serious indication of parody in the sections of the story that imply the narrator's antagonism against Saul. Second, had the narrator wanted to parody the coverup, he had plenty of opportunities to make literary allusions to other parts of the story that would drop us hints as to what he was doing. For example, the narrator could have let us in on Ish-Baal's explanations for his inaction when Abner decided to unmake him. He could have recast the interchanges between David and Joab to mirror more closely the interchanges between Ish-Baal and Abner. He did not, because that was not his intent. He really expects us to believe his version of the story. In fact, he throws down a challenge: "all the people were pleased with David's conduct in the Abner affair; they all knew David was innocent. What's wrong with you?" If you don't know where I'm coming from, go back and read my post "Discerning good from evil". In this passage, the narrator is taking a positively evil stance; this is an individual who has no shame. Are you willing to follow him?

Thursday, September 27, 2007

1 Samuel 25 -- Whose ox is gored?

I take the story of David, Abigail, and Nabal as a cautionary tale about the abuse of power. In fact, most people who read the story come to that conclusion: Don't be a fool like Nabal, who took advantage of David's perceived weakness and paid with his life. On one level, this is the correct application of the story. But I think this story functions as a cautionary tale about the abuse of power on at least 2 or 3 other levels. On the deepest level, it is a cautionary tale about the power (or lack of it) of telling the story.

That perception makes me want to investigate the story more deeply as a platform for ranting about something that really troubles me about our culture lately. There's no point in beating around the bush. I think Americans have decided self-restraint is folly. I'm not just talking about obvious things like sexualized media or the loss of shame over public tantrums by adults. I'm also talking about the loss of a desire for objectivity in thought. People have always had a hard time seriously criticizing their own ideas and listening carefully and sympathetically to people with whom they disagree. In the not so distant past, however, it was a genuine and shared goal among educated people to try to acknowledge and set aside your own prejudices in public discourse, at least enough to be able to tell the difference between complete hooey and telling arguments on different sides of an issue. Sure people cheated and lied about conforming to this expectation. At least they had a standard to cheat over and lie about. These days, it's hard to find anyone arguing for genuine self-restraint. I guess a lot of people figure nobody else knows how to think, so why should I bother?

Who are my villains? To be honest, I'm not sure who to blame. Maybe just about everybody. Maybe me too. I know a few I won't blame: Carl Sagan, Umberto Eco, James Barr (Professor of OT Literature), Paul Tillich (protestant theologian) and a raft of brave souls who toil in education, science, theology, and public policy quietly, precisely because they believe in self-restraint, which naturally gets them no headlines and too few awards. I can pick on a few people who I'm sure have some role to play, but don't know how big: postmodernists who believe that objectivity is an unattainable illusion. (I include here some precursors, too. One known only to conservative evangelical Christians is Cornelius Van Til, a Presbyterian Professor of Christian Apologetics) I can't speak about the genuine pioneers, because I don't know their work (except Van Til), but the second or third-rank followers who have tried to implement their ideas have in some cases royally screwed up. Example? The objectivity of scientific methods is an illusion. They are really a power play to justify andro-centrism or enlightenment autonomy. I don't get these criticisms. What does scientific method have to do with patriarchy? Does openness to correction by data pose some kind of special risk to women's rights? As for enlightenment autonomy or the hegemony of "reason," it seems to me that the only other alternative is to give up on trying to convince people of anything. I take this type of criticism to mean that thinking itself is the problem. The critics will insist that they are only criticizing a particular kind of thinking, one that stacks the deck in favor of the types of conclusions a particular community of thinkers wishes to draw. So, the real target is "materialistic" or "naturalistic" or "abstract/generalist" thinking. The trouble is, when you ask the critics what they want to replace it with, they end up with something that is not thinking at all: unquestioning loyalty to some religious principle, for example. Or worse, nihilism. Current conclusions of scientists about the nature of the world contradict your favorite religious authority? Bummed that you can't convince them to change their views without marshaling adequate evidence and producing a theory that will explain it better than the current models? Fine, you say. Scientifice method is the problem. For the kind of reality I believe in, it doens't work. Ok, then, give up on modern science, but be consistent. You'll have to give up everything it's taught you about the way things work too. Bring back to witch burnings and exorcisms. Throw out all your maps (illusory, who really knows if the earth is round anyway?), trash your computer, tv, turn off the electricity, heat, AC. In fact, you'll have to strip off your clothes and throw out all your books, plates, bedding, furniture, most of your food, tear down your house, disassemble your car. Dump your purse and empty your wallet, too. In short, I think postmodernists are idiots. I don't mean this to be a cheap insult; it's too serious. I think postmodernism saws off the branch on which it sits. Yes, (if you happen to be one of that rare breed who reads Van Til) I'm borrowing this metaphor from Van Til, and I think he was guiltier of it than the enlightenment types he accuses.

Well, now I've gone off on my rant and forgotten about the story of Nabal. But at least you know where I'm coming from. Feel free to trash anything I say from here on out as the ravings of an enlightenment rationalist bigot, if you have to. But I hope you'll at least think through what I say first.

At first glance the story of David, Abigail and Nabal is a straightforward morality tale. We have already been repeatedly informed that David is an innocent man on the run from the murderous and tyrannical king Saul. In fact, David and his small band have been wandering through Nabal's territory already while on the lam. They come back at sheep-shearing time. The narrator tells us that Nabal is rich and a foolish man given to dealing meanly. On the other hand, he has a beautiful and intelligent wife, Abigail. David is already a "hero" in the story. Nabal is the villain, and Abigail is a heroine. Sure enough, David sends messengers to Nabal to greet him, and Nabal "hurls insults" at them. At least, that's how one of his servants describes the situation to Abigail. The servant apparently finds Nabal's behavior infuriating and expects David and his men to feel the same way, so he urges Abigail to do something quick, or Nabal is in big trouble. She gathers a generous supply of food and rides off to meet David and his men. When she meets him she speaks very graciously, takes the blame for the misunderstanding, pronounces a blessing on David, and begs for his consideration when he becomes king. David praises her for preventing him from taking vengeance, promises to spare her busband, takes the gifts and leaves. Abigail goes back home, waits until her husband is sober after some over-enthusiastic celebration, and tells him the whole story, which leaves him utterly stunned. 10 days later he dies at the hand of the Lord. When David is told about it, he praises God for taking care of his enemy for him and proposes marriage to Abigail, who accepts and rides off to meet him. End of story. David and Abigail are rewarded for their virtue and Nabal is punished.

Unfortunately, this reading of the story only works without a hitch when much of the story as actually told is left out. When you fill in the rest of the details, things get murky. First, there's David. What exactly goes on between him and Nabal? We are told earlier in the book that David and his men spent some time in the "desert of Maon," where Nabal lived. We are not told how long they stayed, what they did there, or whom they met. When they go back to this area, David is told that Nabal was shearing sheep in Carmel. Based on what we're told, then, David and Nabal had not met. Of course, there are plenty of people who are willing to fill in the Bible's silence on this matter with suppositions favorable to one party or the other, but the new story crafted out of these careful suppositions takes the edge off what is in the text. We won't go there. We don't know how much about Nabal David knew before he was told about the sheep-shearing or vice versa. Nor does this text really clear those questions up. Presumably, David's men and Nabal's men did know about each other at least a little bit, because they spent an unknown amount of time together in the fields. Most likely, it was not a long period of time. At any rate, we first learn about this in the message David sends with his men, and then again in the report of Nabal's servant to Abigail. Whether any of Nabal's servants told this to Nabal is unknown. The servant hints that no information was exchanged when he tells Abigail "no one can talk to him." In any case, the first "encounter" between David and Nabal, then, is the message sent with David's 10 young men to Nabal in Carmel.

What does David's message mean? It starts off sounding quite comradely. "Long life to you! Good health to you and your household! And good health to all that is yours!" Then David informs Nabal that his men were with Nabal's shepherds in the fields and took good care of them: "we did not mistreat them, and the whole time they were at Carmel nothing of theirs was missing." He requests Nabal to give "whatever you can find" to David's men and to David himself, since it is a festive time. What that is not said here should be assumed? Is this a shakedown? On the one hand, for all we know it may have been customary for local armed bands to protect shepherds in exchange for a share in the harvest. And it may have become an understanding among the local owners that they should include local armed bands in their harvest celebrations. Even if this were so, however, there is no clear boundary between this type of arrangement and extortion, if David's reaction to Nabal's refusal to share was typical. Some have argued that David was fully justified in seeking the life of Nabal for refusing to provide provisions for his men. Nabal had broken the "customary" law of repaying protectors and the Biblical law of providing food for the "sojourner." He may indeed be guilty of the latter. After all, since he claims he doesn't know where the men are coming from, don't they qualify as "sojourners?" The text says nothing about Nabal attempting to check out their claims to find out if they are in need. The message they brought was apparently enough for him. If Nabal is guilty of denying provisions to "sojourners," is his death the fitting punishment for his crime? But the worst part of this argument is the assumption that armed bands receiving "gifts" from citizens in exchange for "protection" is a legitimate social arrangement, especially when the armed band gets to decide whom to protect without consulting with the protected, and when they are allowed to kill people who don't reward them for their "protection." It may be that everyone in the story except Nabal, even the narrator himself, regards David's request as legitimate. That doesn't make it so.
Anyway, back to dealing with the nature of David's request. Nabal's servant seemed to think that Nabal was in serious trouble for "hurling insults" at David's men. Why? What did he know or suspect about David that would lead to this conclusion? And why does Abigail immediately gather a generous supply of food to bring to David? The servant only told her that David sent greetings. What does she know about David that leads her to think David's greeting was a request (demand?) for supplies? Finally, David's immediate reaction to his men's report is a command to strap on their swords and march to Nabal's dwelling. Later, we're told what David was thinking: He had wasted his time protecting Nabal's goods, Nabal had returned evil for good, and he was surely going to make Nabal pay for this with his life and the lives of all the men in his household. All of this suggests that the decision to march against Nabal was not an unpremeditated fit of rage, but the normal tactical response to a recalcitrant "dependent." In modern times we are thoroughly familiar with these types of practices from the jungles of Colombia and Peru to the mountain valleys of Afghanistan. It's worth pointing out that Nabal otained or maintained his wealth for an unknown number of years without David's help. What had changed to make him suddenly need it? And we have to ask why David did not make an agreement with Nabal in advance, if all he really wanted was to trade protection for food? Conclusion: David is practicing extortion. The message sent to Nabal is a metal-knuckled fist wrapped in a satin glove.

What about Nabal? His response to David's men is curt and cutting. "Who is David? Who is the son of Jesse? Many servants are breaking away from their masters these days. Why should I take my bread and water, and the meat I have butchered for my shearers, and give it to men coming from who knows where?"
There have been disputes on the internet about whether Nabal was justified in rejecting David's request/demand. The very fact that Nabal's words, taken without the commentary of the narrator and other characters, would be assessed so differently is telling. Is Nabal insulting David? His apparent ignorance of David may be a slight, or it may be the literal truth. Other details in the story present Nabal as clueless about the general situation. That he would not know who David is fits that picture. Strictly speaking, what Nabal says about the circumstances of David and his men is true. David has broken away from his master. Sure, Saul is pursuing David to kill him, not bring him back into his service, but does Nabal know any of this? In fact, Nabal's statement may be only a supposition: Armed bandits are made up of people who have fled from regulated society. David is an armed bandit, so he and his men must be breakaways. Plenty of people assume that Nabal was speaking from a general knowledge of David's situation. In fact, you can find articles that have Nabal rejecting David's request because he's aware that Saul has been looking for David, and he doesn't want to end up like Ahimelech. The text says nothing about this; it is an unecessary supposition. The last thing Nabal says sums up quite well his reason for rejecting David's request. David and his men have come from who knows where bearing a veiled threat if Nabal does not share his bounty with them. Nabal is not going to deprive himself and his employees of the fruits of their labors for somebody who just shows up demanding something. The general tone of Nabal's words is confrontational. There is no diplomacy or deference here. Why doesn't Nabal show more restraint? I'm not sure. "A gentle answer turns away wrath" must not have had an honored place in Nabal's proverbiary. For no other reason than this, he earns the name "Fool." Does he merit death for this lack of tact? Of course not. Nabal may be plain-spoken, even crass, but he is not the obvious villain after all. He may still be a villain of some sort, but it's going to take some work to make that clear to the reader.

What about Abigail? Of the three main characters, she has the least social power. But she compensates for it by her intelligence. I'm not talking only about her mental acuity; she seems to have a prophetic gift. As mentioned above, she somehow reads between the lines of the servant's words and gathers food for David and his men. In her speech to David, she reveals the following: 1.) David will accede to her request (v. 26); 2.) Nabal will die (v. 26 with v. 29); 3.) someone is pursuing David (v. 29, although translations differ as to whether this is a statement of fact or a supposition); 4.) God has promised David he will be the next "leader" of Israel (v. 30); 5.) God's promise will be fulfilled (v. 31). The narrator leaves us to speculate about how she came to know all this. Some of it can be supposed to have come throught the grapevine; her knowledge about the future could be ascribed to wishful thinking, clever diplomat-speak, unusual insight, or genuine prophetic inspiration. In any case, a surface reading of the text indicates that she possesses a better grasp of the situation than any of the other characters. It is almost surprising that she didn't know David's men had come, given everything she says she does know.

How does she use her power? The standard reading of the text is that she used it virtuously. This reading will sometimes start by attempting to work out the implications of a beautiful, intelligent woman being married to a churlish fool, probably against her will (i.e., arranged marriage). She may have suffered verbal and physical abuse. She may have had to avoid Nabal as much as possible to escape his abuse; they were probably strangers living in the same house. This alone may explain how Abigail can know so much about David and Nabal so little. Whatever scuttlebutt was floating around about David reached her, because the rest of the household could talk to her, but even she could not find a way to discuss these matters with her husband. The woman has been suffering at her husband's hands. Of course, all of this is speculation, presumably encouraged by the narrator's brief comments on their character (much more on this later). We don't really know how Nabal treated his wife. The only time they interact is at the end of the story, when Abigail tells Nabal all about her encounter with David. His response is to lose heart and become like a stone (stroke? catatonia? sudden depression? spiritual hardening of his heart?). So we don't really know how Nabal treated his wife.

We know quite a bit more about how Abigail treated her husband. First, we know that she brought gifts to David without telling Nabal. This initial act is so contrary to the expectations traditional types have about a virtuous woman that you can find several lengthy justifications of it on the web. I won't go into details recounting them. It should be pointed out that 1.) she and Nabal do not agree about how to handle David's request; and 2.) she takes independent action behind her husband's back. When she encounters David, the first thing she does is grovel at his feet. Then she takes the 'blame' for the incident and asks David to "pay no attention" to Nabal. She expostulates on Nabal's foolishness and implies that he is only acting according to character; nothing better could be expected of him. She indicates her 'blame': she did not see the men David sent.

This last point stands as the introduction to her requests. The first request? Let all David's enemies be like Nabal! As mentioned above, this implies a curse upon Nabal that will lead to his death. The second request is that David distribute the food she sent to his followers. The third request is that David forgive her trespass. She explains her request in terms of David's coming exaltation. Since he fights the Lord's battles, God will surely bless him with life and leadership over Israel. By restraining himself now, he will spare himself from a conflicted conscience over the deaths of Nabal's household in days to come. Finally, she requests that David remember her when he becomes the leader of Israel.

One of the interesting issues here is her attempt to take the blame for the situation. First, it should be noted that although she uses the language of wrongdoing and guilt, she does not admit to doing anything really wrong. Her "fault" was not to be there when David's men arrived. This is really a way of casting Nabal in a worse light. (He may deserve it, but nonetheless, she is not defending her husband's character or reputation.) She is saying, "If I had been there, I would have taken care of you; Nabal is just too foolish to treat you the way you deserve." Of course, by trying to deflect the blame to herself, she is increasing the likelihood that David will not carry out his murderous plan; it is far easier to "forgive" a beautiful woman who brings you a generous supply of food, casts herself at your feet, praises you, predicts a glorious future for you, and begs you for mercy (and perhaps hints that she'll be available for something more in days to come), than it is to overlook a curtly-delivered insult by a powerful man. In this respect, Abigail can be understood to plead for her husband's life. So really, she is not taking blame; she is simply trying to coax David into turning aside from his plan and uses the language of guilt to direct his anger away from the really guilty party, Nabal. Now, I think Nabal's guilt is still a matter of doubt, but not David. Abigail is dealing with David's mindset, not a disinterested observer's.

How seriously should we take Abigail's speech? On the surface, she deals very badly with her husband. She curses him, she neglects to plead for his forgiveness, and she neglects to plead for David to give him consideration when he becomes king. Now, it is possible to interpret all of this as a series of concessions to David in order to protect her husband. She understands that David thinks so ill of her husband that the best thing she can do is distract him completely from Nabal and get him to focus his attention on her. On the other hand, nothing in the text prevents us from taking Abigail's words at face value. Her husband is as good as dead, anyway, as far as she's concerned, so she may as well set herself up for the future she is soon to enjoy without him. Later, after David has left satisfied, the sheep-shearing celebrations are over and her husband is good and sober, she tells him "these things." There is plenty of room to guess at what "these things" includes, but it most likely is meant to include everything the narrator has told us about what went on after Nabal's confrontation with David's servants. This means Abigail told Nabal what she said to David. She could have told Nabal nothing, just as she and his servants did heretofore. Why tell him this now? One explanation is that since the crisis is now past, she does the right thing by explaining her behavior to her husband. Presumably, this includes an explanation of her speech as a desperate measure to spare Nabal's life. Nabal reacts to this either with paralyzing fear (the most common interpretation) or hardness of heart. Another explanation is that she tells him everything now as an act of spite. She wants him to know how despicable she thinks he is, how she called death down upon him and cozied up to David to be her protector when he achieves success. Depending on how favorably one regards Nabal's deeds, Abigail's spite can be understood as a virtuous act of self-assertion against a tyrant or wicked opportunism and betrayal. Nabal reacts in shock, perhaps the deep depression of someone who recognizes how deeply he has been betrayed.

We don't know whether Abigail is protecting or separating herself from her husband. Likewise, we can't tell exactly how Nabal takes the news she bears. By the end of the story we still do not know how Nabal and Abigail got along. Maybe the narrator wants us to reach some conclusions about this. One common interpretation of the narrator's intent is that Abigail is deserving of freedom from Nabal and so legitimately acts to free herself from him, and his reaction to her deeds (and his death) confirms that she deserves better.

Why is this conclusion not more obvious? Are we hampered by a lack of common cultural assumptions, or is the real problem in the text?

The gap I am insisting exists between the narrator's apparent intentions and the interpretive options available in the text leads me to focus my attention on the narrator himself. How does he acquit himself in this story? What conclusions should we draw about him?

Now, don't be hasty here. Sure, raising questions about the narrator sounds like a "hermenutic of suspicion." It may resemble some techniques employed by deconstructionists. Please leave the excess theoretical baggage associated with those labels behind.

On the other hand, you may immediately rule my questions about the narrator out of order because the narrator is God and I am a mere man. Who am I to question the narrator's competence or character? Doesn't that prove I'm the one with an agenda? Of course, you may think, this takes us back to the old question, "Is something right simply because God says it is?" Which is more ultimate, the will of God or the standards that will embodies/conforms to? But you don't have to go there. I am not raising questions about how God's will conforms to a standard. I am raising questions about what God's will is. How do we know what God wants us to do? I do NOT assume I know what God is telling me to do just because it shows up in a "holy" book written by someone who claims to speak in his name. It may be that something is right just because God says it is. The question is, how do I know God is telling me it is right?

Actually, some of the traditional discussions of the relationship between the will of God and the moral law end up dealing with the epistemological questions I am interested in. The one I am most familiar with, that of Cornelius Van Til, approaches the question with the understanding that anything asserted by the author of a Biblical text as good and true is also asserted to be good and true by God himself. The epistemological question resolves to "How do I know what the Biblical author is asserting to be good and true?" Once that is settled, any qualms I may have about the goodness or truth of the assertion are my problem. It is a sign of my exceeding sinfulness that I have a problem accepting God's assertion. The solution is to learn the character of my sinfulness so that I may recognize its evil and heartily repent.

I object to this approach. First, there is at least one Biblical counter-example (see post on Discerning good from evil). Under Van Til's view of the Bible, that is enough to undermine his entire position. Moreover, determining what the Biblical author asserts to be good and true in practice includes weighing evidence that does not come from the text and does not directly address the meaning of the text. This is because of the belief that "all truth is God's truth." So, if historical or scientific evidence leads knowledgeable people to believe that the earth revolves around the sun, for example, then that belief should play a role in how one understands the story of the sun standing still in Joshua 10. This procedure amounts to saying that of however many possible meanings may be found in a Biblical text, those that contradict truths discovered outside the Biblical text are ruled out. This principle has been employed by many conservative interpreters to deal with problems of the sort I've encountered in this text. But it is a controversial principle nonetheless, often because interpreters employ it to select an otherwise less probable interpretation simply to efface an apparent error in a Biblical text.

Even more fundamental is the situation in which the text itself appears to undermine its own intention. This is the kind of situation I believe we encounter in 1 Samuel 25. Folks who follow Van Til don't believe that the Bible usually works this way; it is not an ironical or self-parodying/defeating text. This comes from the combination of their view of the character of God and his relationship to human authors. They think God is too directly involved with the surface intention of Biblical texts to let a human author fall into self-defeating behavior, and they don't believe God would actively seek to confuse or frustrate (believing) authors and readers. I think these presumption need testing with Biblical data, and 1 Samuel 25 appears to disconfirm them.

In short, here's what's at stake. On the one hand, the surface intention of the text appears to belittle, insult, and demonize Nabal while presenting Abigail in a positive light and defending David from possible charges of evil-doing in his dealings with Nabal. On the other hand, there are features in the text that at least put a question mark behind these surface intentions, and in some cases directly contradict them. So, are these discordant features purposefully planted clues to the overall meaning of the story or just revealing mistakes? And who put them there? Is this story the product of one hand, or several working at cross-purposes?

Right away, let me dispose of the second set of questions. As far as I'm concerned, it doesn't ultimately matter whether 1 or 10 authors "wrote" this story. While answers to those questions may be useful for many other purposes, I don't think they will help us come up with the answer to the question of what "lesson" to derive from David's interactions with Nabal and Abigail.

An answer to the first set of questions, on the other hand, could be quite useful. Is the story trying to get us to question David's character and motives? Is it trying to undercut its own surface pro-David slant? Or is the text a true believer's screed for David and against all his enemies and critics, and we just happen to notice its excesses because we don't share the author's faith in David? If the latter is correct, then our choices are clearer and simpler. We either accept the author's claims because the text is ultimately authored by God, and who are we to question or doubt his use of apparent propaganda, or we reject them because we find propaganda incompatible with God's character and would rather the Bible be untrue than God a Joseph Goebbels.

If the former is correct, the whole situation becomes more interesting. First, it leads one to look for clues of the same kind of narrative behavior elsewhere in the David story. How many are there, where will they show up, how will they qualify or undercut the surface presentation of David? Subsequent posts to this log will show some of these "clues" in other texts. Second, it raises the question of the motivations underlying the "ironical" narrator's actions. Why not just come out and openly declare David a bad guy? Third, it gives an "out" to evangelicals who want the "teaching" of the Bible to come out inerrant at the end of the day. After all, if the narrator ultimately wants you to condemn David for his bad behavior rather than praise him, how can you fault the narrator for propagandizing? But what an out! If a serious evangelical scholar were to adopt and promote this kind of interpretation (to my knowledge, none has), it would start a hermeneutical war.